UGC NET Commerce Solved Paper-July 2018 [Papers-II] – Que. 51 to 100

UGC NET Commerce Solved Question Papers-July 2018

UGC NET Commerce Paper-II Solved Papers- July 2018 (Que. 51 to 100)

51. The VRIO framework, used in HR function in today’s era, refers to four criteria. Identify the correct code which stands as correct explanation to VRIO as proposed by Barney.

(1) Valence – Recruiting – Industrial relations – Opportunities

(2) Vision – Rewards – Improvements – Options

(3) Value – Rarity – Imitability – Organization

(4) Versatile – Resource – Information – Outsourcing

52. Assertion (A): Induction is an informal information sharing session on miscellaneous issues in an organization.

Reasoning (R): The rationale of induction is to ensure effective integration of staff into or across the organization for their mutual benefit.

Code:

(1) Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) both are correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) Assertion (A) is correct statement but Reasoning (R) is an incorrect statement.

(4) Assertion (A) is an incorrect statement but Reasoning (R) is a correct statement.

53. Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I pertaining to the ranking methods used in performance management systems ; and select the code of correct matching.

List – I (Ranking methods)

List – II (Methodology)

(a) Simple ranking

(b) Alternation ranking

(c) Paired comparison

(d) Forced distribution

(i) Based on overall performance.

(ii) Ends up with predetermined number of people in each group.

(iii) Based on particular trait only for quantity/quality of work.

(iv) Based on a trait or a set of trait and avoids central tendency.

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

54. Assertion (A): Compensation has two vital domains economic concept and psychological concept.

Reasoning (R): Compensation basically represents an employment contract.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is right explanation of (A).

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

55. Which of the following is not the primary objective of industrial relations and labour laws?

(1) Maintaining social equity

(2) Providing credit facilities to industries

(3) International uniformity

(4) Promoting economic growth

56. Assertion (A): In real terms, workers’ participation in management has failed in India.

Reasoning (R): There is lack of attitudinal change, multiplicity of unions and absence of a procedure to determine a sole bargaining agent in an organization.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

57. Which one of the following is not the function of NABARD?

(1) To provide refinance assistance by way of short term credit to state cooperative banks and sectoral rural banks, etc., approved by the RBI for some specific purposes.

(2) To undertake inspection of cooperative societies other than primary cooperative societies and RRBs.

(3) To promote research in various aspects of the problems of urban development.

(4) To subscribe to share capital or invest in securities of any institution concerned with agricultural and rural development.

58. Which one of the following financial institutions co-ordinates the functions and operations of all the financial institutions into a single integrated financial structure so that each may contribute to the growth of the economy?

(1) IFCI

(2) UTI

(3) IDBI

(4) SIDBI

59. Assertion (A): The Reserve Bank of India is entrusted with the management of the public debt and issue of new loans and treasury bills on behalf of the central and state Governments.

Reasoning (R): The Governor and the Deputy Governors of Reserve Bank of India are appointed by the Central Government.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

(2) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

(3) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

(4) (A) and (R) both are not correct.

60. __________ refers to the process of removing or stripping the legal status of a currency.

(1) Digitisation

(2) Financial Inclusion

(3) Demonetisation

(4) Micro finance

61. Which one of the following is not the objective of UTI?

(1) To mobilise savings of the community by offering savers the triple benefits of safety, liquidity and profitability of Investments.

(2) To channelise the pooled savings into productive outlets.

(3) To provide finance under hire purchase finance and housing finance to its members.

(4) To give every one a chance to indirectly own shares and securities in a large number of select companies.

62. Which one of the following is the main objective of IFCI?

(1) To offer both small and large investors the means of acquiring shares in the widening prosperity resulting from the steady industrial growth of the country.

(2) To upgrade technology, modernization and to promote marketing of products of small scale sector.

(3) To serve as the apex institution for term finance for industry with coordination, regulation and supervision of the working of other financial institution.

(4) To provide medium and long term financial assistance to industrial undertakings, particularly in those circumstances in which banking accommodation is in appropriate or resource to capital market is impracticable.

63. Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I and indicate the correct code:

List – I

List – II

(a) Term finance

(b) Refinance

(c) Financial inclusion

(d) Venture capital

(i) Providing finance to new or existing industrial units for encouraging commercial application of technology/expansion.

(ii) Delivering of banking services at affordable cost to the vast sections of disadvantaged and low income groups.

(iii) Providing replenishment finance to eligible institutions for their loans to industrial concerns.

(iv) Providing finance to the borrowers for expansion and modernization of plant and equipment.

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

64. Assertion (A): An export processing zone is different from free trade zone as it promotes units primarily devoted to exports.

Reasoning (R): Goods imported to a free trade zone may be re-exported without any processing, in the same form. But, goods exported by units in an EPZ are expected to have undergone some value addition by manufacturing/ processing.

Code:

(1) (A) is correct and (R) is correct explanation of (A).

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

65. Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I relating to liberalisation of agricultural trade.

List – I

List – II

(a) Tariffication

(b) Prohibited subsidies

(c) Actionable subsidies

(d) Non-actionable subsidies

(i) They have demonstrably adverse effects on other member countries.

(ii) They act on goods which are contingent upon export performance.

(iii) Replacement of existing non-tariff restrictions.

(iv) For industrial research in disadvantaged regions.

Code:

. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)

66. Match the items of List – II and with the items of List – I relating to WTO impact:

List – I

List – II

(a) NAMA

(b) GATTS

(c) TRIMs

(d) TRIPs

(i) Liberalisation of international investments.

(ii) Includes industrial goods, textile, jewellery, fish and fisheries product manufacturing industries.

(iii) Liberalisation of trade in goods and services.

(iv) Provides monopoly power to owners of intellectual property.

Code:

. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

67. Indicate the correct code of the following statements being correct or incorrect. The statements relate to the type of transactions recorded in the current/capital accounts of the Balance of Payments.

Statement (I): The capital account consists of long-term capital transactions only.

Statement (II): The current account includes all transactions which give rise to or use up national income.

Code:

(1) Both the statements are correct.

(2) Both the statements are incorrect.

(3) Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

(4) Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

68. Select the correct code of the following statements being correct or incorrect.

Statement (I): International liquidity encompasses the international reserves only.

Statement (II): International liquidity covers only official holdings of gold, foreign exchange, SDRs and reserve position in the IMF available for the settlement of the international transactions.

Code:

(1) Both the statements are correct.

(2) Both the statements are incorrect.

(3) Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect.

(4) Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct.

69. Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I and select the code of correct matching. The items relate to International Trade Theories.

List – I

List – II

(a) Comparative Cost Theory

(b) Opportunity Cost Theory

(c) Factor Endowment Theory

(d) Absolute Cost Theory

(i) Adam Smith

(ii) Gottfried Haberler

(iii) David Ricardo

(iv) Eli Heckscher and Bertil Ohlin

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(4) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

70. Which one of the following is not the guiding principle of the World Bank regarding it’s lending operations?

(1) Proper assessment of the repayment prospects of loans.

(2) Lending should be only for specific projects which are economically and technically sound and of a high priority nature.

(3) The lending should be to enable a country to meet foreign exchange content of the project cost.

(4) The bank does expect the borrowing country to spend the loan in a particular country.

71. Total return on a security is equal to the following:

(1) Periodic cash receipts + Capital gains/Purchase Price of the security

(2) Periodic cash receipts + Capital gains/Current Market Price of the security

(3) Periodic cash receipts/Current Market price of the security

(4) Periodic cash receipts − Capital gains/Purchase Price of the security

72. Risk of a portfolio can be minimised by which one of the following?

(1) Combining two securities having perfect positive correlation in their expected returns.

(2) Combining two securities having perfect negative correlation in their expected returns.

(3) Combining two securities having partially positive correlation in their expected returns.

(4) Combining two securities having partially negative correlation in their expected returns.

73. The certificate which evidences an unsecured corporate debt of short-term maturity, is known as:

(1) Certificate of Deposit

(2) Short-term loan certificate

(3) Treasury Bill

(4) Commercial paper

74. Which of the following statements are false? Indicate the correct code.

(a) Grey market is a market for dealing in listed securities.

(b) OTCEI is mainly intended for big investors.

(c) Insider Trading is legally permitted in the capital market.

(d) The device adopted to make profit out of the differences in prices of a security in two different markets is called ‘arbitrage’.

Code:

(1) (a), (b), (c)

(2) (a), (b), (d)

(3) (a), (b), (c), (d)

(4) (b), (c), (d)

75. Which of the following statements are false? Indicate the correct code.

(a) Share capital issued by a company for the first time is known as venture capital.

(b) All Venture Capital Funds in India are promoted by the Government.

(c) In addition to capital, venture capitalists provide managerial and technical support also to the assisted firms.

(d) Benefits from venture capital financing can be realised in long run only.

Code:

(1) (a), (b) and (d)

(2) (a) and (b)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (c) and (d)

76. Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I and select the correct code:

List – I

List – II

(a) Liquidity Risk

(b) Business Risk

(c) Financial Risk

(d) Inflation Risk

(i) Risk related to purchasing power of Income.

(ii) Risk related to Firm’s capital structure.

(iii) Risk related to inability to pay its dues on time.

(iv) Risk related to fluctuation in profits.

Code:

. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

77. Statement (I): Designing a distribution system for a service (for-profit or non-busines context) involves to select the parties only through which ownership will pass.

Statement (II): The ownership channel for most of the services is long and quite complex because of inseparability characteristic.

Statement (III): Short channels usually mean more control on the part of the seller.

Identify the correct code of being the statements correct or incorrect. These statements relate to channel strategies of products/services.

(1) Statements (I) and (II) are correct but (III) is not correct.

(2) Statements (I) and (III) are correct but (II) is not correct.

(3) Statements (I) and (II) are not correct but (III) is correct.

(4) Statements (I), (II) and (III) all are not correct.

78. An enormous collection of data on various topics from a variety of internal and external sources, compiled by a firm for its own use or for use by its clients, is called:

(1) Data-base

(2) Data warehouse

(3) Data mining

(4) M.I.S.

79. Statement (I): A form of non-store retailing that uses advertising to contact consumers who, in turn, purchase products without visiting a retail store is called Direct selling.

Statement (II): A form of non-store retailing in which personal contact between a sales person and a consumer occurs away from a retail store is called Direct Marketing.

In the light of above statements, identify the correct code of statements being correct or incorrect.

(1) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is not correct.

(2) Statement (I) is not correct but Statement (II) is correct.

(3) Both the statements are correct.

(4) Both the statements are not correct.

80. 34% of the customers who fall in one of the categories of diffusion process who are deliberate customers to accept an innovation just before the average adopter in a social system. Such customers who are above average in social and economic measures, rely quite a bit on advertisements and salesmen are known as:

(1) Early Adopters

(2) Early Majority

(3) Late Majority

(4) Late Adopters

81. The G. E. Business Model is explained on which one of the following parameters?

(1) Market Attractiveness and Business Position.

(2) Business Attractiveness and Market Position.

(3) Industry Growth rate and Company’s Market share.

(4) Company’s Growth rate and Industry’s Position.

82. A reduction from the list price that is offered by a seller to buyers in payment for marketing functions the buyers will perform is known as:

(1) Trade Discount

(2) Functional Discount

(3) Cash Discount

(4) Both Trade and Functional Discount

83. Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I relating to Personnel Management (PM) and Human Resource Management (HRM) ; and select the code of correct matching.

List – I

List – II

(a) Focus of PM

(b) Focus of HRM

(c) Philosophy of PM

(d) Philosophy of HRM

(i) Development attitude by making people contribute their best.

(ii) Exercising it as a functional area of management.

(iii) Exercising it as humane management.

(iv) Profit maximization by controlling people.

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

84. Select the correct code of the following statements being correct or incorrect.

I. Strategic HRM focuses on specific organizational intentions about what needs to be done while HR strategies focus on long-term issues only.

II. Strategic HRM focuses on macro concerns such as structure and culture while HR strategy focuses on specific issues assigned.

III. Human Resource strategy decisions are derived from strategic HRM.

Code:

(1) Statements I and II are correct while III is incorrect.

(2) Statements II and III are correct while I is incorrect.

(3) Statements I and III are correct while II is incorrect.

(4) All the statements are correct.

85. Which of the following code represents the full form of the term “BARS” in performance management systems?

(1) Business Appraisal and Rating Systems.

(2) Balanced Assessment Reviewing Scorecard.

(3) Behaviourally Anchored Rating Scale.

(4) Benchmarking Appraisal Reviewing Strategy.

86. Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I relating to training, and select the code of correct matching.

List – I

List – II

(a) Andragogy

(b) Pedagogy

(c) Terminal behaviour

(d) Training impediments

(i) Strategies or styles of instructions

(ii) Ultimate knowledge level with which trainee leaves the training sessions

(iii) Lack of commitment of management and scarcity of resources in training

(iv) Art and Science of training the adults

Code:

. (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

87. Which of the following statements does not stand as a principle of compensation administration?

(1) An enterprise should have a clear -cut plan to determine differential pay level in terms of divergent job requirements.

(2) People and jobs should never be mingled.

(3) The compensation system should be designed with subjectivity with respect to individual skill sets exercised from time to time.

(4) There should be established wage grievance handling procedures.

88. Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I relating to industrial relations and select the code of correct matching.

List – I

List – II

(a) Healthy labour–management relations

(b) Industrial Peace Law

(c) Industrial Democracy

(d) National Commission on Labour, 1969

(i) Industrial Disputes Act

(ii) Guiding principles for a grievance procedure

(iii) Workers’ participation in management

(iv) Voluntary arbitration and responsible trade union

Code:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

89. In recent years which among the following countries has been the largest source of foreign investment in India?

(1) Australia

(2) Japan

(3) China

(4) Mauritius

90. Assertion (A): The Government of India has been opening up domestic market to foreign players in baby steps.

Reasoning (R): Allowing foreign firms free play in India’s retail sector has always been a political hot potato.

Code:

(1) (A) and (R) both are correct ; and (R) is the right explanation of (A).

(2) (A) and (R) both are correct ; but (R) is not the right explanation of (A).

(3) (A) and (R) both are incorrect.

(4) (A) is correct ; but (R) is incorrect.

91. Select the correct code of the following statements being correct or incorrect.

Statement (I): A Global Depositary Receipt (GDR) is a bank certificate issued in more than one country for shares in a foreign company.

Statement (II): A GDR is very similar to American Depositary Receipt (ADR)

Statement (III): GDRs are called EDRs when private markets are attempting to obtain Euros.

Code:

(1) Statements (I), (II) and (III) are correct.

(2) Statements (I) and (II) are correct but (III) is incorrect.

(3) Statements (I) and (III) are correct but (II) is incorrect.

(4) Statements (II) and (III) are correct but (I) is incorrect.

92. In December 1999, European commission members signed a treaty that committed them to adopting a common currency known as Euro. This is better known as:

(1) Treaty of Rome

(2) Treaty of Maastricht

(3) Treaty of Lisbon

(4) Treaty of London

93. Select the correct code of the following statements being correct or incorrect.

Statement (I): The ‘law of one price’ states that in competitive markets free of transportation costs and barriers to trade, identical products sold in different countries must sell for the same price when their price is expressed in terms of the same currency.

Statement (II): An ‘Efficient market’ has no impediments to the free flow of goods and services, such as trade barriers.

Code:

(1) Statement (I) is correct but (II) is incorrect.

(2) Statement (II) is correct but (I) is incorrect.

(3) Both statements (I) and (II) are correct.

(4) Both statements (I) and (II) are incorrect.

94. Which among the following is not a correct statement regarding patent?

(1) A patent is a legal protection granted for an invention that is new, non-obvious and useful.

(2) The patent grants the patent holder the exclusive right to make use or sell the patented products or process.

(3) The exclusive purpose of the patent system is to benefit the patent holder.

(4) The Indian Patent Act, 1970, was amended and made effective from January 1, 2005.

95. Which one of the following is agricultural income under the Income Tax Act, 1961?

(1) Interest on arrears of rent in respect of agricultural land.

(2) Interest received by a money-lender in the form of agricultural produce.

(3) Income from sale of trees of forest which are of spontaneous growth and in relation to which forestry operations alone are performed.

(4) Interest on capital received by a partner from the firm engaged in agricultural operations.

96. Under the Income Tax Act, 1961 “block of assets” for the purpose of charging depreciation means:

(1) Value of all the assets after depreciation

(2) Value of all tangible assets after charging depreciation

(3) Value of all those assets to which one rate of depreciation is applicable

(4) Gross value of machinery and plant less accumulated depreciation

97. The maximum amount of exemption of compensation received at the time of voluntary retirement U/S 10(10C) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, is:

(1) Rs. 1,00,000

(2) Rs. 2,50,000

(3) Rs. 5,00,000

(4) Rs. 10,00,000

98. Which one of the following statements is not correct with reference to the assessment of firms?

(1) All partnership firms formed under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, are assessed as firms under the Income Tax Act, 1961.

(2) Income of a firm is taxable at a flat rate of 30% without any exemption.

(3) Partners’ share in the income of a firm is not chargeable to tax in the hands of partners.

(4) Remuneration paid to partners of a firm (assessed as such) is allowed as deduction subject to statutory limit.

99. The due date of first instalment of advance tax by assessees other than companies is:

(1) 15th April

(2) 15th June

(3) 15th September

(4) 15th December

100. Which one of the following items is not allowed as deduction while computing income from business and profession?

(1) Fees paid to the lawyer for drafting partnership deed

(2) Loss due to embezzlement by an employee

(3) Legal expenses paid to protect the building of the business

(4) Cost of installing a new telephone

 

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